Claudio di Veroli wrote (elsewhere):

"Baroque German performers played with inégales the French dances: the 
evidence is scarce but very convincing, and AFAIK this fact has been 
accepted by current musicology for the last two decades. The result in 
performance is IMHO excellent."

It would be interesting to know more about this "very convincing 
evidence", and how it applies to Bach.

Also, "current musicology" does not seem to accept this fact. The 
abstract of a very recent article in Early Music even states the contrary:

Notes inégales: a definitive new parameter

Beverly Jerold

"Foreign sources which have been thought to prescribe the French system 
do not satisfy the parameters for /notes inégales/. ... Thus French 
inequality does not apply elsewhere [i.e. outside of France], except in 
the rare instance specified by the composer."

Dennis

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